Dear students get fully solved
assignments
Send your semester &
Specialization name to our mail id
help.mbaassignments@gmail.com
or
call us at : 08263069601
MBA ENTRANCE EXAM
MARKETING
1. One of the advantages of corporate retailing is that corporate
retail organizations achieve economies of scale, greater purchasing power,
better-trained emp loyees, and
________.
a. wider brand recognition
b. mo re locations
c. branded merchandise
d. “fresh” merchandise
e. mo re advertising
2. An independent retailer using a central buying
organization and joint promo tion
efforts is known as a ________.
a. corporate chain store
b. voluntary chain
c. retailer cooperative
d. merchandising conglomerate
e. franchise
organization
3. The
internal records system supplies results data, but the marketing intelligence
system supplies ________ data.
a. concurrent
b. secondary
c. research
d. happenings
e. premium
4. A ________ is a
set of procedures and sources managers use to obtain everyday information about
developments in the marketing environm ent.
a. marketing
research system
b. marketing information system
c. product
management system
d. marketing
intelligence system
e. vertical
system
5. A comp any can take several steps
to imp rove the quality of its
marketing intelligence. If the comp any
purchases comp etitive products for
study, attends open houses and trade shows, and reads comp etitors’
published reports and stockholder information, the comp any
is using ________ to imp rove the
quality of its marketing intelligence.
a. sales
force surrogates
b. intermediaries
c. external networks
d. advisory
panels
e. customer
feedback systems
6. Other
media for direct-response marketing includes television. Television is used by
direct marketers in conducting or producing “infomercials,” videotext and
interactive TV, and ________.
a. ad camp aigns
b. direct response
c. at-home shopping channels
d. commercials
e. kiosks
7. The
exchange process in the age of information has become increasingly
customer-initiated and ________.
a. market specific
b. customer-controlled
c. marketer-orientated
d. private
e. marketer-controlled
8. The Internet provides marketers and
consumers with opportunities for much greater interaction and ________.
a. ease of use
b. speed
c. specificity
d. convenience
e. individualization
9. We
can say that a ________ has three characteristics: (1) It is a source of comp etitive advantage in that it makes a significant
contribution to perceived customer benefits, (2) it has applications in a wide
variety of markets, and (3) it is difficult for comp etitors
to imitate.
a. core
competency
b. business strategy
c. core technology
d. strategic business unit
e. winning strategy
10. Core
comp etencies tend to refer to areas
of special technical and production expertise, where ________ tend to describe
excellence in broader business processes.
a. process benchmarks
b. distinctive
capabilities
c. core
business values
d. value
statements
e. mission
statements
11. George
Day sees market-driven organizations as excelling in three distinctive
capabilities: ________, customer linking, and chann el bonding.
a. target
marketing
b. market
research
c. fulfilling
customer needs
d. market
sensing
e. customer
service relationships
12. Comp etitors find it hard to imitate comp anies such as Southwest Airl ines,
Dell, or IKEA because they are unable to copy their ________.
a. product
innovations
b. distribution
strategy
c. pricing
policies
d. activity
systems
e. logistics
system
13. One
conception of holistic marketing views it as “integrating the value
exploration, ________, and value delivery activities with the purpose of
building long-term, mutually satisfying relationships
and co-prosperity amo ng key
stakeholders.”
a. value
creation
b. value proposition
c. value management
d. value research
e. value chain
14.
Red Bull has gained ________ of the
worl dwide energy drink market by
skillfully connecting with global youth.
a. 70
percent
b. 80
percent
c. 60
percent
d. 50
percent
e. 90
percent
15. Red Bull built buzz
about the product through its ________.
a. “buzz
marketing program”
b. “in
program”
c. “marketing
program”
d. “seeding
program”
e. “advertising
camp aign”
16. A global industry
is defined as ________.
a. an
industry in which the strategic positions of competitors are fundamentally
affected by their overall global positions
b. an
industry that operates in mo re than
one country and captures R&D, marketing, and other financial advantages in
its costs and reputation.
c. an
industry that operates in mo re than
one country and has a strategic position in many countries
d. a
firm that operates in mo re than one
country and has a sales and marketing staff in those countries
e. an
industry that has strategic positions in many countries but is not affected by
comp etition
17. A
global firm is one that ________.
a. where
the strategic positions of comp etitors
are fundamentally affected by their overall global positions
b. operates
in more than one country and captures R&D, marketing, and other financial
advantages in its costs and reputation
c.
operates in mo re than one
country and has a sales and marketing staff in those countries
d. operates
in mo re than one country and has a
sales and marketing staff in those countries developing
e. has strategic
positions in many countries but is not affected by comp etition
researching
18. Global firms
plan, operate, and ________ their activities on a worl dwide
basis.
a.
produce
b. coordinate
c. distribute
d. price
e. service
19. The major decisions
in international marketing include which of the following steps ?
a. Deciding whether to
go abroad.
b. Deciding which
markets to enter.
c. Deciding how to
enter the market.
d. Deciding on the
marketing program.
e. All of
the above.
20. The
internationalization process has four stages. These stages are ________.
a. no
regular export activities
b. export via independent representatives
(agents)
c. establishment of one or mo re sales subsidiaries
d. establishment of production facilities abroad
e. all are
part of the internationalization process
MANAGEMENT
1. Relatively enduring resource transactions
flows, and linkages that occur among two or more organizations are called:
a.
Intranet.
b.
interorganizational
relationships.
c.
resource
dependence.
d.
institutional
environment.
2. A system
formed by the interactions of a community of organizations and their
environment is referred to as a(n):
a.
interorganizational relationships.
b.
organizational ecosystem.
c.
collaboration network.
d.
institutional environment.
3. In this new world, managers think
about _______ rather than vertical structures.
a.
profit-making
b.
stakeholders
c.
horizontal structures
d.
competition
4. Which of the following is not part of
the framework of interorganizational relationships?
a.
population ecology
b.
institutionalism
c.
collaborative network
d.
shared competition
5.
Which theory argues that
organizations try to minimize their reliance on other organizations for the
supply of important resources and try to influence the environment to make
resources available?
a.
interorganization
theory
b.
environmental
resource theory
c.
resource
dependence theory
d.
economic
supply theory
|
6.
|
Which of the following statements is false?
a.
Functional managers may be the head of a payroll department.
b.
Functional managers often oversee several general managers.
c.
Functional managers may be responsible for making sure that payroll
checks are issued on time and in the correct amounts.
d.
General managers may be responsible for a strategic business unit or a
division.
|
|
7.
|
General managers usually have ___________managers
reporting to them.
a.
country
b.
top
c.
regional
d.
functional
|
|
8.
|
One who understands the workings of a business
enterprise is aware of the fact that in large organizations, managers may be
distinguished by the scope of the activities they manage. Therefore, which of the following
statements is accurate?
a.
Functional mangers supervise employees with general skills that may be
applied to many roles.
b.
General Managers supervise employees with specialized skills in a
single area.
c.
General Managers may be responsible for the operation of a department,
but only if it is very small.
d.
General Managers are responsible for the overall operations of a more
complex unit such as a company or division.
|
|
|
|
|
9.
|
In what specific sequence do managers perform
their managerial functions in order to achieve company goals?
a.
planning, organizing, leading, controlling
b.
organizing, leading, controlling, planning
c.
leading, controlling, planning, organizing
d.
None of the above because the functions are often performed
simultaneously.
|
|
10.
|
American Express’ decision to grow their customer base, and establish
global partners is an example of which managerial function?
a.
Organizing
b.
planning
c.
directing
d.
controlling
|
|
11.
|
All of the following are
reasons managers plan except:
a.
coordinating human, material, and information resources.
b.
establishing an overall direction for the organization’s future.
c.
identifying and committing the organization’s resources to achieving
its goals.
d.
deciding which tasks must be done to reach those goals.
|
|
12.
|
Managers can better coordinate human, material, and
information resources by:
a. organizing effectively.
b. delegating issues.
c. leading team members.
d. focusing on issues.
|
|
|
|
|
13.
|
In the
_________ process managers set standards of performance, measure current
performance against those standards, take action to correct any deviations,
and adjust the standards if necessary.
a.
planning
b.
organizing
c.
leading
d.
controlling
|
|
14.
|
Howard
Schultz, CEO of Starbucks, believes that its success is due to competitive
spirit, ability to respond to customers’ needs, and its ____________ process.
a.
leading
b.
planning
c.
controlling
d.
organizing
|
|
15.
|
YUM!
Brands is divided into five distinct restaurant brands for the purpose of
serving the specialized needs of customers.
What managerial function is being employed to achieve this type of
clarity?
a.
organizing
b.
planning
c.
leading
d.
controlling
|
|
16.
|
When
Lois Dimpfel, vice president of IBM Worldwide Olympic Technology Systems, was
organizing the team to bring the Salt Lake City Games to millions of TV
viewers, she was primarily involved in the _______________ managerial
function.
a.
planning
b.
controlling
c.
organizing
d.
leading
|
17.
|
Kerry Smith has just moved
into a top-level managerial role with Pepsi products. Which of the following is not part of the planning
process Smith will be engaged in?
a.
establishing directions for the organization
b.
identifying the organization's resources to achieve organizational
goals
c.
committing the organization's resources to achieve organizational
goals
d.
structuring relationships among employees that will enable them to
carry out management's plans and meet specific goals
|
|
|
|
|
18.
|
Starbucks
attributes its success to the managerial function of ______________, which
includes control procedures such as the criteria used to hire people, the
type of coffee beans used, and the physical layout of stores.
a.
planning
b.
controlling
c.
directing
d.
organizing
|
|
19.
|
The
planning function is the dynamic process of making decisions that focuses on
___________.
a.
outsourcing
b.
past performance
c.
future performance
d.
technical skills
|
20.
|
Once managers
have defined goals for future performance, they must translate those
relatively abstract desires into reality.
The coordination effort to do this represents ____________.
a.
organizing
b.
planning
c.
controlling
d.
leading
|
FINANCE
1.
The value of the Australian dollar (A$) today is $0.73. Yesterday, the
value of the Australian dollar was $0.69. The Australian dollar ________ by
_______%.
A) depreciated; 5.80
B) depreciated; 4.00
C) appreciated; 5.80
D) appreciated; 4.00
2.
If a currency’s spot rate market is ________, its exchange rate is
likely to be __________ to a single large purchase or sale transaction.
A) liquid; highly sensitive
B) illiquid; insensitive
C) illiquid; highly sensitive
D) none of the above.
3. _________ is not
a factor that causes currency supply and demand schedules to change.
A) Relative inflation rates
B) Relative interest rates
C) Relative income levels
D) Expectations
E) All of the above are factors that
cause currency supply and demand schedules to change.
4.
A large increase in the income level in Mexico along with no
growth in the U.S. income level is normally expected to cause (assuming no
change in interest rates or other factors) a(n) ______ in Mexican demand for
U.S. goods, and the Mexican peso should _______.
A) increase; appreciate
B) increase; depreciate
C) decrease; depreciate
D) decrease; appreciate
5. An increase in U.S.
interest rates relative to German interest rates would likely ________ the U.S.
A) reduce; increase
B) increase; reduce
C) reduce; reduce
D) increase; increase
6. Investors from Germany ,
the United States , and the U.K.
A) fewer; depreciate
B) fewer; appreciate
C) more; depreciate
D) more; appreciate
7. When the “real” interest rate is relatively
low in a given country, then the currency of that country is typically expected
to be:
A) weak, since the country’s quoted interest
rate would be high relative to the inflation rate.
B) strong, since the country’s quoted interest rate
would be low relative to the inflation rate.
C) strong, since the country’s quoted interest
rate would be high relative to the inflation rate.
D) weak, since the country’s quoted interest
rate would be low relative to the inflation rate.
8. Assume that the inflation rate becomes much
higher in the U.K. relative
to the U.S. U.K.
begin to rise relative to interest rates in the U.S.
A) upward; downward
B) upward; upward
C) downward;
upward
D) downward; downward
9.
In
general, when speculating on exchange rate movements, the speculator will
borrow the currency that is expected to appreciate and invest in the country
whose currency is expected to depreciate.
10. Baylor
Bank believes the New
Zealand
Currency Lending Rate Borrowing Rate
Dollars 7.10% 7.50%
Baylor Bank has the capacity to borrow
either NZ$10 million or $5 million. If Baylor Bank’s forecast if correct,
what will its dollar profit be from speculation over the five‑day period
(assuming it does not use any of its existing consumer deposits to capitalize
on its expectations)?
A) $521,325.
B) $500,520.
C) $104,262.
D) $413,419.
E) $208,044.
11. Which
of the following is a reason why commercial banks can facilitate international
trade?
A) The exporter may not wish to accept credit
risk of the importer.
B) The
government may impose exchange contracts that prevent payment by the importer
to the exporter.
C) The exporter may need financing until payment
for the goods is received.
D) All of the above
12. Consider an exporter that sells its accounts
receivables off to another firm that becomes responsible for obtaining cash
from the various importers. This reflects:
A) accounts receivable financing.
B) consignment.
C) factoring.
D) a letter of credit.
13. Consider a bank that acknowledges that it will
make payments on behalf of a computer importer after the computers are
delivered to the importer. This reflects:
A) accounts receivable financing.
B) forfaiting.
C) factoring.
D) a letter of credit.
14. Consider
an importer that issues a promissory note to pay for the imported capital goods
over a period of five years. The notes are extended to an exporter who
sells them at a discount to a bank. This reflects:
A) accounts receivable financing.
B) forfaiting.
C) factoring.
D) a letter of credit.
15. Consider an exporter that is willing to send
goods to the importer without a guaranteed payment by the bank. The bank
provides a loan to the exporter that is backed by the value of the exported
goods. This reflects:
A) accounts receivable financing.
B) forfaiting.
C) factoring.
D) a letter of credit.
16. MNCs can use _________ to sell
their existing accounts receivable as a means of obtaining cash.
A) factoring
B) a bill of lading
C) a banker’s acceptance
D) a letter of credit
17. __________ was established in 1934 with the
intention to facilitate Soviet‑American trade.
A) Domestic International Sales Corporation (DISC)
B) Private Export Funding Corporation (PEFCO)
C) Export‑Import Bank
D) Foreign Credit Insurance Association (FCIA)
18. A __________ provides a summary of freight
charges and conveys title to the merchandise.
A) letter of credit
B) banker’s acceptance
C) bill of lading
D) bill of exchange
19. According to the text, international trade
activity has generally __________ over time. This should cause the popularity
of trade finance techniques to ___________ over time.
A) increased;
increase
B) increased; decrease
C) decreased; increase
D) decreased; decrease
20. BIS
stands for:
a) international code for payments
b) central bank of the central banks in the
world.
c) World bank located in New York
MANAGERIAL ACCOUNTING
1. A is a fixed cost; B is a variable cost. During
the current year the level of activity has decreased but is still within the
relevant range. We would expect that:
A) The
cost per unit of A has remained unchanged.
B) The
cost per unit of B has decreased.
C) The
cost per unit of A has decreased.
D) The
cost per unit of B has remained unchanged.
2. Which costs will change with an increase in
activity within the relevant range?
A) Unit
fixed cost and total fixed cost
B) Unit
variable cost and total variable cost
C) Unit fixed cost and total variable cost
D) Unit
fixed cost and unit variable cost
3. Salaries
of accounts receivable clerks when one clerical worker is needed for every 750
accounts receivable is an example of a:
A) fixed
cost
B) step-variable
cost
C) mixed
cost
D) curvilinear
cost
4. Limousine
Conversion Company purchases ordinary Cadillacs, cuts them in half, and then
adds a middle section to the vehicles to create stretch limousines. With
respect to the number of cars converted, the cost of the Cadillacs purchased
for conversion by Limousine Conversion Company would best be described as a:
A) fixed
cost
B) mixed
cost
C) step-variable
cost
D) variable
cost
5. For
an automobile manufacturer, the cost of a driver's side air bag purchased from
a supplier and installed in every automobile would best be described as a:
A) fixed
cost.
B) mixed
cost.
C) step-variable
cost.
D) variable
cost.
6. With
respect to a fixed cost, an increase in the activity level within the relevant
range results in:
A) an
increase in fixed cost per unit.
B) a
proportionate increase in total fixed costs.
C) an
unchanged fixed cost per unit.
D) a
decrease in fixed cost per unit.
7. A budget that is based on the actual activity
of a period is known as a:
A) continuous
budget.
B) flexible
budget.
C) static
budget.
D) master
budget.
8. The
fixed manufacturing overhead budget variance equals:
A) Actual
fixed manufacturing overhead cost--Applied fixed manufacturing overhead cost.
B) Actual
fixed manufacturing overhead cost--Budgeted fixed manufacturing overhead cost.
C) Budgeted
fixed manufacturing overhead cost--Applied fixed manufacturing overhead cost.
D) Actual
fixed manufacturing overhead cost-- (Actual hours x Standard fixed overhead
rate).
9. Which
of the following variances is least significant from a standpoint of cost
control?
A) materials
price variance.
B) labor
efficiency variance.
C) fixed
overhead volume variance.
D) variable
overhead spending variance.
10. The
manufacturing overhead variance that is a measure of capacity utilization is:
A) the
overhead spending variance.
B) the
overhead efficiency variance.
C) the
overhead budget variance.
D) the
overhead volume variance.
11. If
the denominator activity is less than the standard hours allowed for the actual
output, one would expect that:
A) the
variable overhead efficiency variance would be unfavorable.
B) the
fixed overhead volume variance would be favorable.
C) the
fixed overhead budget variance would be unfavorable.
D) the
variable overhead efficiency variance would be favorable.
12. The
volume variance is nonzero whenever:
A) standard
hours allowed for the output of a period differ from the denominator level of
activity.
B) actual
hours differ from the denominator level of activity.
C) standard
hours allowed for the output of a period differ from the actual hours during
the period.
D) actual
fixed overhead costs incurred during a period differ from budgeted fixed
overhead costs as contained in the flexible budget.
13. A
volume variance is computed for:
A) both
variable and fixed overhead.
B) variable
overhead only.
C) fixed
overhead only.
D) direct
labor costs as well as overhead costs.
14. Which
of the following standard cost variances would usually be least controllable by
a production supervisor?
A) Fixed
overhead volume variance.
B) Variable
overhead efficiency variance.
C) Direct
labor efficiency variance.
D) Materials
usage (quantity) variance.
15. During the year the balance in the prepaid
expenses account increased by $6,000. In order to adjust the company's net
income to a cash basis using the direct method on the statement of cash flows,
it would be necessary to:
A) deduct
the $6,000 from the operating expenses reported on the income statement.
B) add
the $6,000 to the operating expenses reported on the income statement.
C) deduct
the $6,000 from the cost of goods sold reported on the income statement.
D) add
the $6,000 to the cost of goods sold reported on the income statement.
16. In
a statement of cash flows, all of the following would be classified as
operating activities except:
A) interest
paid to creditors.
B) dividends
received on stock in another company held as an investment.
C) dividends
paid to the company's own common stockholders.
D) interest
received on a long-term note receivable.
17. In
a statement of cash flows, a change in accounts payable account would be
classified as:
A) an
operating activity.
B) a
financing activity.
C) an
investing activity.
D) a
noncash item that need not appear on the statement of cash flows.
18. A
decrease in the plant and equipment account of $100,000 over the course of a
year would be shown on the company's statement of cash flows prepared under the
indirect method as:
A) an
addition to net income of $100,000 in order to arrive at net cash provided by
operating activities.
B) a
deduction from net income of $100,000 in order to arrive at net cash provided
by operating activities.
C) an
addition of $100,000 under investing activities.
D) a
deduction of $100,000 under investing activities.
19. Which
of the following should be classified as an investing activity on a statement
of cash flows?
A) cash
received from the sale of office equipment that was sold at a loss.
B) cash
used to purchase a long-term investment in bonds of another corporation.
C) cash
received from the issuance of Iguato Corporation common stock.
D) both
A and B above
E) all
of the above
20. Which
of the following should be classified as an investing activity on a statement
of cash flows?
A) cash
paid for income taxes.
B) cash
paid for dividends to stockholders.
C) cash
paid to employees for services rendered.
D) none
of the above
STRATEGIC INTEGRATION
1.
Long-term objectives are needed
at which level(s) in an organization?
a.
Corporate
b.
Divisional
c.
Functional
d.
all of these
e.
none of these
2.
Financial objectives involve all of the
following except:
a.
growth in revenues.
b.
larger market share.
c.
higher dividends.
d.
greater return on investment.
e.
a rising stock price.
3.
What principle is based on the belief
that the true measure of a really good strategist is the ability to solve
problems?
a.
Managing by crisis
b.
Managing by objectives
c.
Managing by extrapolation
d.
Managing by exception
4.
What principle is built on the idea
that there is no general plan for which way to go and what to do?
a.
Managing by crisis
b.
Managing by extrapolation
c.
Managing by objectives
d.
Managing by hope
e.
Managing by exception
5.
All of the following are important
factors in the Balanced Scorecard except:
a.
customer service.
b.
employee morale.
c.
product quality.
d.
business ethics.
e.
stockholder equity.
6.
Which level of strategy is most likely not present in small firms?
a.
Corporate/company
b.
Functional
c.
Divisional
d.
Operational
e.
All of these are present in small firms
7.
A business-level strategy is concerned
with..
a.
…all of the business in which a company
intends to compete.
b.
…all policies and procedures used in
various functional areas.
c.
…the firm’s action to exploit its
competitive advantage in a strategic sense in the marketplace.
d.
…a unique combination of the firm’s
resources, strategic intent and mission.
8.
Southwest Airlines selling tickets
through Galileo is an example of which type of strategy?
a.
forward integration
b.
backward integration
c.
horizontal integration
d.
related diversification
e.
unrelated diversification
9.
Whirlpool selling its struggling Hover
floor-care business to Techtronic Industries is an example of which type of
strategy?
a.
related diversification
b.
unrelated diversification
c.
retrenchment
d.
divestiture
e.
liquidation
10.
Burger King opening its first
restaurant in Japan
a.
forward integration
b.
backward integration
c.
horizontal integration
d.
market development
e.
product development
11.
Which of the following is most likely not included in the functional level of
a small company?
a.
Finance
b.
Marketing
c.
R & D
d.
Department managers
e.
Human resource managers
12.
Integration
strategies are sometimes collectively referred to as which of these strategies?
a.
Horizontal
integration
b.
Diversification
c.
Vertical
integration
d.
Stuck-in-the-middle
e.
Hierarchical
integration
13.
Why is market
segmentation an important variable in strategy implementation?
a.
all company
strategies require increased sales through new markets and products.
b.
it allows a firm
to operate with limited resources.
c.
mass production,
mass distribution and mass advertising are not always required.
d.
market
segmentation decisions directly affect marketing mix variables.
e.
all of the above
14.
Which of the
following variables are not directly affected by market segmentation?
a.
Product
b.
Place
c.
Process
d.
Promotion
e.
Price
15.
Why is market
segmentation an important variable in the strategy-implementation process?
a.
company
strategies do not require increased sales through new markets and products.
b.
it allows a firm
to operate with no resources.
c.
it directly
affects marketing mix variables.
d.
it allows a firm
to minimize per-unit profits and per-segment sales.
e.
all of the above
16.
Perhaps the most
dramatic new market segmentation strategy is the
a.
targeting of
regional tastes.
b.
focusing on universal
product.
c.
preference of
international over domestic sales.
d.
treatment of
industrial markets.
e.
none of these
17.
Matching of which
factors would allow factories to produce desirable levels without extra shifts,
overtime or subcontracting?
a.
markets and
competitors
b.
competition and
positioning
c.
customer behavior
and positioning
d.
supply and demand
e.
segments and
demand
18.
Which variable
would be considered part of the product element of the marketing mix?
a.
Advertising
b.
Packaging
c.
Payment terms
d.
Inventory levels
and location
e.
Publicity
19.
Which variable
would be considered part of the place element of the marketing mix?
a.
Product line
b.
Service level
c.
Personal selling
d.
Sales territory
e.
Discounts and
allowances
20.
What entails
developing schematic representations that reflect how your products or services
compare to competitors’ on dimensions most important to success in the
industry?
a.
Positioning
b.
Segmentation
c.
Penetration
d.
Diversification
e.
Budgeting
End of
Examination
Dear students get fully solved
assignments
Send your semester &
Specialization name to our mail id
help.mbaassignments@gmail.com
or
call us at : 08263069601
No comments:
Post a Comment
Note: Only a member of this blog may post a comment.